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4-betting concept…unclear…

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7:24 am
June 18, 2009


mash.tun

Member

posts 4

On P. 141, under "if your opponent 3-bets light frequently, but is selective with flop continuation bets:"

The 2nd bullet-point seems to be contradictory…maybe I'm missing something?  It states "Tend to 4-bet with strong hands and sometimes with weak hands.  Since 4-betting is mostly a bluff…"

If your major tendency is to 4-bet with strong hands, how can you call your 4-bets mostly bluffs???ConfusedConfusedConfused

8:02 am
June 18, 2009


Tackleberry

Germany

Member

posts 29

"Strong" doesn´t mean "very strong". I guess the wording "… mostly a bluff" means that if you get 5-bet or your 4-bet gets called even strong (yet not very strong) hands (like TT) mostly are behind the calling / 5-bet-range of Villain.

Please correct me, if I am wrong …

- Tack -

11:36 am
June 18, 2009


Ed Miller

Admin

posts 112

Oh, you're right, the wording is a little unclear. I'll try to clean it up for the update.

What we mean is that when you are 4-betting light you are doing so mostly as a pure bluff as opposed to a semi-bluff (where you expect to have some equity if your bluff fails) because the likely failure condition is that your opponent 5-bet shoves on you and you're forced to fold.

12:28 pm
June 18, 2009


mash.tun

Member

posts 4

Ed Miller said:

Oh, you're right, the wording is a little unclear. I'll try to clean it up for the update.

What we mean is that when you are 4-betting light you are doing so mostly as a pure bluff as opposed to a semi-bluff (where you expect to have some equity if your bluff fails) because the likely failure condition is that your opponent 5-bet shoves on you and you're forced to fold.


Thanks, Ed…that's kinda what I assumed you guys meant…

BTW, love the book so far!

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