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12:38 am December 12, 2009
| Noah
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How big of an underdog do you have to be to be considered "dominated"?
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7:40 am December 14, 2009
| Lorenzo
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10:07 am December 14, 2009
| mullethaiku
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| Member | posts 96 | |
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I always thought of "domination" as being outkicked with only 2 or 3 outs – AK vs AQ, KJ vs K10, A6 vs J6, etc.
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10:13 am December 14, 2009
| Noah
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I don't think 49% to 51% is considered being dominated. If that were the case, then ace-king would be considered a bad starting hand.
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1:40 pm December 14, 2009
| Noah
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mullethaiku said:I always thought of "domination" as being outkicked with only 2 or 3 outs – AK vs AQ, KJ vs K10, A6 vs J6, etc.
Okay, so all of those are around 25% equity. Fair to say that anything under 30% equity is considered being dominated?
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9:19 am December 15, 2009
| mullethaiku
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| Member | posts 96 | |
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I would say < 30% equity would work as a rough definition of being "dominated" preflop. So this would not only include hands like AQ vs AK, but also overpairs vs underpairs like KK vs JJ, 99 vs 77, etc.
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