Small Stakes No-Limit Hold'em

We raise to $7 UTG with black kings.  The button, who is a solid 19/17 player, calls.  The flop is Q64 with two diamonds.  The book indicates that this opponent could easily raise and get all-in on this flop with a good queen.  Why would this solid player do that with an SPR of over 11?

I was thinking that if our opponent had a draw and we had an overpair, then the money might get all-in after opponent shoves over top of our bet; but if he had top pair against our overpair, then the money would not get all-in.  Also, if we were to have the draw and opponent were to have top pair or overpair, then once again the money would get all in that way as well, only this time we would be shoving instead of calling.

In other words, the all-in scenario would require either us or him to have the draw, and the player on the draw would shove, and the made hand would respond with a call, but it would not happen if it were a made hand facing a made hand.